Continuing where I left off in the previous blog post: to prove that the set of infinite numbers between and is equal to the set of infinite numbers between and (assuming we are dealing with real numbers), we need a bijection between the two sets i.e. each number in one set must be paired uniquely to another number in the other set, and no numbers can be left over. This is simple: pair each in the set between and to in the set between and .
Consider the above picture: if the top number line is the set of infinite numbers between and and the bottom is that between and , each line passes through a unique pair, and in this way, there are no numbers left that are unpaired in either set!
So we have proven that the two sets have the same cardinality – but isn’t this a bit paradoxical? How come the two sets are the same size, even though one wholly includes the other?
What if I joined each in the set between and to and in the set between and ? Then wouldn’t the second set be twice as big as the first?
Or what if I joined each in the set between and to and – would the opposite would be true? Could a set be bigger than another set that includes it?
(I must admit, this is where my memory of Cantor’s set theory started to get a little hazy. I had to do a little research for this part…)
To answer the question, first off: “cardinality” is a little different from what the everyday definition of “size” is. As shown above, there are many arguments to show that one set could be bigger than the other. To bypass this, two sets are said to have the same cardinality simply if there exists a bijection between them. That is, just the fact that it is possible to pair the numbers in the two sets means that they have the same cardinality. Weird, I know.
So then, going back to Hazel’s argument that “some infinities are bigger than other infinities,” when can a set have a cardinality bigger than that of another set? Well, there must exist an injective function (but not a bijective function) from one set to another.
English: if it is impossible to pair the numbers in the two sets without having some numbers left over, one set is bigger than the other. What does this mean? Well, an example is always best, and Cantor’s diagonal argument offers a beautiful proof of why the infinite set of real numbers is bigger than the infinite set of natural numbers; such a set is said to be uncountable since the set’s elements cannot be numbered from to infinity. You can read more about it on Wikipedia here.
In summary: No, Hazel, unfortunately your “infinity” with Augustus is just as big as any other couple’s “infinity.” Of course, the distance between the two bounds and is smaller than the distance between the two bounds and , but the “number” of numbers between the two bounds for each set are the same. So, of course, you could argue that you have less time with Augustus, but the same number of points in time with him as anyone else.
But I have a feeling you don’t want to include all that in your eulogy. No, that wouldn’t be very romantic at all. So maybe you’re better off omitting that argument in your eulogy…
And for your information, I do get invited to a lot of parties, thank you very much.
*Rant over*